Hi All,
I would like to ask for help in what I'm doing wrong for this simple I beam stress analysis.
(as I learn the Nastran software I started to a simple problem for varication)
I have I beam HE 100A , simply supported and loaded with uniform distributed beam of 100N/mm.
when I run analysis, result in moments are correct however the Von misses gives higher stress.
hand calculation = 174.56Mpa
Inventor Vonmises = 306.4 Mpa max
what did I do wrong please help me so I could better understand the Nastran.
Thank you all in advance
Solved! Go to Solution.
Solved by John_Holtz. Go to Solution.
Hi @felixjr11
I see two potential differences:
Are you sure that your hand calculations and model are for the same thing?
Hi @John_Holtz ,
Thank you for quick reply, for my support I use symmetry at one end at Y direction and on the other end I release rotation at z axis. Am I getting it correct? and for my calculation I use max Mo = wL2/8, then Bstress is = Mo/Sx which I got a 174.57MPa or (180.75Mpa w/o radius bet flange and web).
I notice that Beam equivalent stress are similar with hand calculation, which means that its use a one plane?
Regarding Von Misses, I try to model it as shell element, same constraint and loading (but convert to force), what I am getting as a result are similar to calculation. 181.4Mpa. why they have big difference with beam element?
Please correct me where I am wrong.
Thank you very much
Hi @felixjr11
Can you provide your hand calculations? That would show us what you are trying to model.
Hi @felixjr11
Sorry, I missed the calculation that you provided in one of your replies. For the convenience of other readers, here are the complete hand calculations (extracted from the model provided):
With the corrected constraint (see analysis 2 in the attached), Nastran is calculating 180.75 N/mm^2 for the maximum stress. Therefore, the results are identical.
The von Mises stress at the center of the beam is also 180.75 MPa, so it is correct. This is somewhat of a coincidence because the shear force is 0 at the center of the beam. Otherwise, the von Mises stress is generally different than your hand-calculated bending stress. (The maximum von Mises stress is shown at the supports because the calculated shear stress is high.)
Does this make sense?
Hello, Von Mises stress is calculated: =Sqrt[(Equivalent Stress)^2 + 3*(Total Shear Stress)^2)], but for Beam element doesn´t make sense to use it because it has higher values, than Equivalent stress. It can be verified by simple bended beam supported at one end and force on opposite end. And it corrsponds always to hand calculations.
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